Do Qur’anic Verses Contradict Each Other?

Aslaamu Alaikum wa Rahmat Allah wa Barakato Dear scholars, I have a question please and I hope I get the answers Insha-Allah.allah said in Sora al-nisa 4:82 that there is not contradiction in the Quran and if there is, then it?s not from Allah. The following verses ??seems?? opposed to each other but I know there should be an explanation for it. For example, in Sora albaqara 2:253 says we prefer some prophets over others and in 2:285 says we don?t prefer one prophet over an other. Also in 6:34 and 15:9 and 18:27 and 6:115 and 10:64 says the word of God cannot be changed. But in 2:79 implies that the word of God can be changed. Furthermore, in 2:106 and 16:101 Allah himself says some verses are changed and deleted. Also 19:16-19 says only one angel spoke to Mary but in 3:42-45 says more than one. Also in 7:27 says Allah chooses the Shaitan to be with humans but in 7:30 says people make the Shaitan their Awle-yaA. Also was Pharaon Drowen or saved? In 43:55 says he drowned and in 10:90-92 says he was saved by his body. Also will the Jews and Christains go to hell or heaven? In 3:85 says anyone who is not a muslim will go to hell and in 5:72-73 also says they will go to hell, but in 2:62 and 5:69 says they will go to heaven. Also in how many days Allah created the heavens and the earth? In 7:54, 10:3, says six days. But in 41:9-12 says eight days. Finally, how was the Human created? In 25:54 and 24:45 says water. A clot in 96:1-2. A clay/mud in 15:26, 32:7, 38:71. From sand/dust in 30:20, and 35:11.Slaamu Alaikum wa Rahmat Allah wa Barakatu, Dubai, U.A.E

Non muslims asking ‘Is Qur’an really the ‘True Furqan

In the Name of Allah, Most Gracious, Most Merciful.Dear scholars, As-Salamu `alaykum. Please could you give guidence on what should Muslims do since there has been a FAKE AMERICAN QURAN ('The True Furqan') printed and being distributed in Schools in Kuwait.Jazakum Allah khayran.A FAKE AMERICAN QURAAN http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/tg/detail/-/1579211755/qid%3D1096805827/102-4933271-2395342  < br />above: 'The True Furqan'The new AMERICAN Quran: a dangerous trick A new Quran is being distributed in Kuwait, titled "The True Furqan". It is being described as the ayats of the Shaytan and Al-Furqan weekly magazine has found outthat the two American printing companies;'Omega 2001'and 'Wine Press' are involved in the publishing of 'The True Furqan', a book which has also been titled 'The 21st Century Quran'! It is over 366 pages and is inboth the Arabic and English languages...it is being distributed to our children in Kuwait in the privateEnglish schools! The book contains 77 Surats, which include Al-Fatiha, Al-Jana and Al-Injil. Instead of Bismillah, each Surat begins with a longer vesion ofthis incorporating the Christian belief of the three spirits.And this so! called Quran opposes many Islamic beliefs. in one of its ayats it describes having morethan one wife as fornication, divorce beingnon-permissable and it uses a new system for the sharing out of the will, opposing the current one. It states that Jihad is HARAAM.This book even goes as far as attacking Allah, Subhanahu wa Tahala!All this is poisoning our children at approx. $3.

Punishment for Zina Between the Qur’an and Sunnah

Assalam-o-Alaikum I am a born Muslim fortunately but my problem is that I see so many sectc in Muslims and I wish to find the right one. I try to understand Quran but I am amazaed when I find some laws in Sharia which are contradictory to Quran's orders. I will put one example hereWhen Quran tells us the punishment for "Zina", it does not diffferentiate among sinners. No distinction is made among married or unmarried "zaani/zaaniah" and the punishment is stated as lashes.In our present sharia however it is believed that this punishment is only for unmarried sinners and for married sinners it is stone to death. The basis of this discremination is from the book of Hadith.My problem is that I believe that Quran is the only 100% authentic set of rules from Allah. Whtever else is, it is not sure that it has reached us as it was original. Even contents of books of Hadiths are not 100% sure as no one including Allah, Rasoolullah or the compilers of books claim those to be 100% sure.Definitely whatever is from Rasool, it is to be followed but after it is pro ved to be 100% sure from Rasool. For me it is difficult to believe that Rasoolullah made this ammendment in the punishment for Zina. If he would have done, he must have made arrangement for the documentation of any such ammendment. But as I know, this was not recorded till the compilation of Hadith books. Such an important matter, an extension or ammendment in the order of Allah's words, if from Allah or Rasool (of coure Rasool did not do anythinng himself rather he obeyed Allah), why it has not been recorded by Rasool, Khulafa-e-Rashideen or any responsible person but only by a scholar after more than two centuries.Can any scholar/alim please answer my confusion? May Allah lead me to His true way and the real Islam.Regards

Reading Qur’an After Someone’s Death

As-salaamu alaykum wa Rahmatullahi wa BarakatuhDear brotherI my community when somebody dies we read quran, surah baqra, surah yaseen and so on some certain number of times. If somebody is facing any health or other kinds of problem we say ya salaamo or ayate karima certain number of times. If somebody is shifted in a new house they invite other people to read and finish a quran for Allah?s blessings. Now my question is that is it according to Islamic teachings. I read in a book that our prophet (SAW) didn?t use to follow this practice whenever somebody died in his era. He use to pray for that persons forgiveness but not to read quran and some surahs. Is this bidah. And if I was invited to someone?s house for this should I go or simply make an excuse.My second question is that my husband is working for a conventional bank. We read the fatwas on your site and he too was with me. He is taking care and avoiding as much as possible not to involve himself with the interest based transactions. Allah has been kind to us and my husband has now been promoted to a seat where he is basically doing people management. Now my heart keeps on troubling me that what if he involves himself with interest based transactions. Our riziq becomes impure and so our prayers and istighfar won?t be accepted. This thought also troubles me as there is a difference of opinion between the scholars on working in a conventional bank. I want to perform hajj but then again I get worried that what if our earnings are not from a desirable source. Allah says that he guides the ones who seek guidance. Now what if the opinions of the scholars who say that working for a conventional bank is not permissible is my guidance and I am taking an easy way out. I do try to ask my husband when he tells me about any transactions that involve him that are they interest based or not. Sometimes I get worried that he might start getting upset with my continuous asking. Now what should I do? What should be my role as a wife? What should I do w ith my trouble thoughts? Please help me out.One more thing which I want to ask you is that my daughter is 7 years old. Now to teach her the prayers what I am doing is that whenever I am praying I ask her to join me. I say the whole prayer loudly so that she can hear it. Is this the correct way? If not how should I teach her because after school and her ho,ework she is not left with much of time. And what about my prayers? If what I am doing is incorrect will my prayers be accepted?ThanksJazak Allah Khair.

Does the Term Unbelievers Include the People of the Book?

Dear Scholars and all sisters/brothers, Assalamu alaykum.all Scholars agree there is no way to justify the marriage of a Muslim woman with a non-Muslim man even if the woman works and provides for herself and the husband lets her practice her faith in every aspect of her life. According to the Qur?an: "Nor marry (your girls) to unbelievers/idolaters until they believe: A man slave who believes is better than an unbeliever/idolater, even though he allures you. Unbelievers do (but) beckon you to the Fire. But Allah beckons by His Grace to the Garden (of bliss) and forgiveness, and makes His Signs clear to mankind: That they may celebrate His praise" (Al-Baqarah 2: 221). But does this verse include the People of the Book as well? It is still not clear to me if the term ?unbeliever? includes the People of the Book as it looks like in other verses there is a clear distinction. Can you please shed light on this? Also, Scholars agree a married woman that converts to Islam should leave her husband if he doesn?t convert too (even if they have kids and the husband lets her practice her faith). To me it is not clear why Allah would like a family to break up like this. Am I a sinner if I don?t agree with the Scholars especially because the Quran doesn?t mention the case of a convert? Please note I?m married to a Muslim man. I?m a convert to Islam, alhamdulilah, and although I accepted the Quran, it?s still hard to me to accept ALL Scholars? point of views: I know they are respectable Muslims that have been studying Islam all their life but they are human beings like me that can make mistakes and cannot be sure about the TRUE and UNIQUE interpretation of Allah (SWT)?s words.  Jazakum Allah khairan.

Hypothesis of the Mathematical Structure of the Qur’an

As-salaamu `alaykum! I am a Muslim from Kazakhstan. Some time ago I got acquainted with the 19 miracle theory and I have to confess that it sounds to a great extent convincing ? especially the calculations connected to Basmalah: really impressive and very easy to check (!) for everybody.however, there is an issue making me really upset. Dr. Edip Yuksel in his book ?Above it is 19? insists (as Dr. Rashad Khalifa did, too) that the last two ayahs of the surah ?at-Tawbah? (9:128-129) do not belong to the Qur?an. One of the most interesting arguments are is the existence of a narrative according to which a serious controversy took place when these two ayahs were being added to the Qur?an ? later than the main part of this surah. First of all, ?Ali bin Abi Taleeb was so much indignant that even refused to take part in the election of the first Khalifah, Abu Bakr. However, his opinion was not finally taken into consideration. So, my question is: Please, could you give me information ? as detailed as possible ? about, - FIRST, whether or not such a controversy really did place in history and, - IF YES, what kind of arguments were used by both sides and how was it finally provedthat the ayahs 9:128-129 do really belong to the Qur?an? - BESIDES, whether or not some independent investigation of the (hypothetical) mathematical structure of the Qur?an was ever made? (I mean, NOT by Dr. Rashad Khalifa?s backers or opponents?) I do realize to what extent serious a matter all of these are and WHAT is finally at stake.this is why I am asking you to give as more details as possible over both topics.thank you very much in advance. Jazakum Allahu Khayran.timur ? KAZAKHSTAN

Did the Prophet Write Some Qur’anic Verses in His Favor?

As-Salamu `alaykum. I have a question for you that may seem blasphemous. Nevertheless, I have to ask it. I was born into and grew up in a very happy Muslim family. I went to school and accepted pretty much everything I was taught. However, over the past few years I have been questioning whether Islam is a true faith or simply just my inherited faith. I have been reading about many religions, not to convert but simply to understand and learn. While researching religion, I have been reading the Qur’an and authentic Hadith.Now here is the potentially blasphemous part. I am wondering if parts of the Qur’an were not written by Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon him) himself. I notice that on a few occasions when something was worrying him personally, a verse was revealed in his favor. For example: “O ye who believe! Enter not the Prophet's houses--until leave is given you--for a meal, (and then) not (so early as) to wait for its preparation; but when ye are invited, enter; and when ye have taken your meal, disperse, without seeking familiar talk. Such (behavior) annoys the Prophet; he is ashamed to dismiss you, but Allah is not ashamed (to tell you) the truth. And when ye ask (his ladies) for anything ye want, ask them from before a screen: that makes for greater purity for your hearts and for theirs. Nor is it right for you that ye should annoy Allah's Messenger, or that ye should marry his widows after him at any time. Truly such a thing is in Allah's sight an enormity.” (Al-Ahzab: 53)To me, this looks very personal to Muhammad (peace and blessings be upon him). It does not look like a universal message for millions of generations to come. The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) didn't want guests that lingered and didn't want men to marry his wives—which is a trait of many possessive husbands—so a verse stating his wants was revealed.I seek refuge in Allah if I am wrong, but I fear that this may be the case. Please keep an open mind and answer this from your heart, that is, what you really think, not the standard Islamic rhetoric. Thanks for your efforts.

Sunnis and Shiites: One Qur’an or Two?

Is it not a factor of the disintegration of the Muslim Ummah that there are deep differences in opinion among the Muslims though they believe in one God, follow one Prophet and have one heavenly Book (the Qur’an)?My question revolves around Allah’s Book. The Salafis, an influential sect among Muslims, adopt the view that the Shiites are apostates, claiming that the Shiites do not believe in the Qur’an that the Sunnis believe in. According to the Salafis, the Shiites’ claim that they believe in the Qur’an is a kind of taqiyyah (professing a certain belief to ward off the wrath of the authority). I argue that the Shiites no longer need to practice taqiyyah. Why they should do so when they have a state under their authority and can protect themselves? Moreover, they declare whatever opinions they hold even if these opinions anger the Salafis and Sunnis. Besides, if they have a Qur’an other than that which the Sunnis believe in, why is there no copy that is different from the Qur’an that is compiled and agreed upon all over the world? Above all, does not Almighty Allah say, and most truthful are His words: ‘‘We have, without doubt, sent down the Message; and We will assuredly guard it (from corruption)’’ (Al-Hijr: 9)?Would the claim that the Shiite sect has another Qur’an not contradi ct the meaning of this verse? How would the Qur’an be guarded against corruption if there is another version of it? I also wonder if the Shiites do not really believe in the Qur’an, why some eminent scholars have tried to bring the views of the Shiites and Sunnis close together? On what bases and for what reasons would this closeness be founded?However, there are some controversial questions that a fellow Muslim has raised in this regard. In fact, this fellow seems to be concerned with proving that the Shiites do not believe in the Qur’an. He argues thus:The Imamite Shiites are unanimous that they all believe in the authenticity of the Qur’an without denial of even a letter of it. We have no alternative but to believe what they say in this regard, but some questions are raised that cast doubt about their truthfulness in this respect. We are almost sure that their saying so is but a matter of taqiyyah I wish we may be wrong in this belief, but the points that make us doubt their truthfulness are worthy of consideration, and I hope they have answers for them. These points can be summed up as follows.First, the majority of the early Shiite scholars were reported to have declared that the Qur’an is incomplete. The Shiites tried to claim that the incompleteness meant here has to do with the interpretation of the Qur’an, not with the Qur’an itself, but the words their imams were quoted to have said in this respect do not support this claim.Second, one of their eminent scholars wrote a book in which he tried to prove that the Qur’an has been altered, and he cited more than 1,200 hadiths to assert this claim.Third, the Shiite scholar Al-Jazairi said point blank that the belief that the Qur’an has not been altered contradicts the hadiths whose various chains of narrators lift them to the degree of authenticity, and all these hadiths indicate the alteration of the Qur’an.Fourth, the Shiites accuse the Sunnis of altering the Qur’an, too. I read what one of their scholars wrote on this. According to this scholar, the Shiites tried to prove that the Sunnis’ compilation of the Qur’an was incorrect, and, moreover, reported the Sunnis as saying that the Qur’an is incomplete. I have disregarded their, for it is groundless. It is widely known that the Sunni scholars’ belief in the completeness of the Qur’an and the authenticity of its compilation are beyond doubt.This Shiite attitude raises a very serious question: If the Sunnis have altered the Qur’an, as they say, why do they declare that they unanimously believe in this Qur’an?The Shiites either lie about their accusing the Sunnis of altering the Qur’an, or they lie about their belief in it. I wonder which of these attitudes they really follow.This fellow’s argument may be somewhat controversial, but, in my opinion, the question he has raised really needs a detailed and clear answer.I know my question is long, and I am sorry for this. But I am really concerned about this issue and I hope you may provide me with a clear answer that will help me form my opinion in this respect, which, I believe, I will be brought to account for before Almighty Allah.I consider this issue serious, especially as I heard that a Muslim who calls another Muslim an apostate has become an apostate himself, and a Muslim who calls a person whose disbelief is clear a Muslim has also become an apostate.