son

Respected scholars, as-salamu `alaykum. Is it Islamically permissible to remarry for the purpose of having a son? My wife and I have five daughters and my only son passed away last year. My wife can no longer have children. Is it permissible for me to remarry for the purpose of conceiving a boy? Do I need to have my wife’s consent to remarry? Jazakum Allahu Khayran.

AssalamualaikumI am married for the last 3 years. Have a 4 month child. She is a teacher in an Urdu school. She is maashallah a good muslimah with a great zeal for doing Dawah & Islaah especially in her school. In the last 3 years my Imaan has become much stronger.But there is a huge problem. Recently I told my Ulema friend about an incident that took place 2 years back. I feel ashamed to narrate what happened. My father once came to visit us & tried to molest my wife in the kitchen. She managed to throw him off without any harm. There was no one in the house at that time except my little sister who was in another room. She heard my wife scream. When she went to the kitchen everything had subsided by then. My wife narated this to me. I confronted my father about the same. Initially he evaded the topic but when my sister also put pressure on him he admitted & was remorseful. The matter was closed then & there. Although my wife now maintains a strict distance from my father. My father now hates her & tries his best to divorce her from me. Inspite of his charachter problem I still love him because right from my diaper days till my graudation he was concerned about me. But I am also fortunate to have a good wife.Now, the Maulana (Mufti from Deoband seminary in India) friend of mine told me that my wife is haraam for me. And the nikah is already invalid & hence my child is Haraam. All future generations till Qayamah from my child will also be haraam. And my wife for no fault of her is like my mother. He said that even if a person touches a daughter sexually even by mistaking her to be his wife (not out of any sinful intention but just by mistake) even then his wife becomes permanently haraam for him. Local imam here also has the similar view but with some difference - that if actaul zina had taken place then she would have been ha raam, but not in this case because actual zina did not take place. They quote the verses 22, 23 & 24 of Surah 4 - An-Nisa. I am going mad!Please clarify in the light of Quran & Hadith. I don't want to leave my wife neither do I want to commit haraam all my life. I have spent sleepless nights in the last few days. How can Allah be so unjust?PLEASE SEND A REPLY URGENTLY. I AM DESPERATE.

In Surah at-Taubah, Aya 30 says the following: "The Jews call 'Uzair a son of God, and the Christians call the Christ a son of God.."I saw a lot of anti Islam sites mentioned that this statement is historically wrong and the Jews have never held Ezra to be "the son of God" in any exclusive sense like the Christians consider Jesus to be the unique divine son of God.therefore this verse became a problem that has led many translaters to make attempts to soften or to hide the issue one way or the other.What is the translation of this verse?

Dear scholars, as-salamu `alaykum. According to a hadith about the father’s rights over his child, the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said: “You and your wealth belong to your father.” Does this apply to daughters who work and earn a good salary? Can her father take from her wealth if her father is not in any real need, and she is under his care? Jazakum Allah khayran.