prayer time

Joining Prayers Due to Work or Continual Release of Wind

Salam 3alaykum. The following is an excerpt of the ? Concession for people who find it difficult to hold their wudu?: ?Ibn Hajar, may Allah have mercy on him, said: ?The ruling on non-menstrual blood (Istihadah) is the same as the ruling on anything that breaks Wudu?: she should do Wudu? for each prayer, but she should not pray more than one Fard (obligatory) prayer with that Wudu?, whether she is praying on time or is making up the prayer later, because of the apparent meaning of the hadith, ?You should do Wudu? for each prayer.? This is the opinion of the majority of scholars. (Fat-h al-Bari)The same ruling applies to the person who suffers from continual incontinence or wind. You can pray as many Nafl prayers as you like with the Wudu? you made for a Fard prayer, until the time for that fard prayer is over.?However, performing only one Fard prayer is the opinion of the Shafi`i scholars. The Hanafi and Hanbali scholars are of the view that people with such unusual circumstances should make a new Wudu? for the time of each prayer and then they can perform whatever they like of obligatory and supererogatory prayers as long as the time of the prayer did not elapse.?My query is as follows: I suffer from continual incontinence or wind and am acquainted with the concession for people who have difficulty maintaining their wudu?. I am a European Muslim and it is not possible for me to pray the Dhuhr and ?Asr prayer on time in the workplace, so I have to make up for them later at home, and also sometimes with them the Maghreb prayer. I know that according to some scholars, it is permissible to do wudu? and pray for instance Dhuhr and ?Asr together as long as it is the time for this combined prayer. But why can?t I do the same when I am making up for both prayers? Why do I have to repeat wudu? for ?asr prayer? Why can?t I just make one wudu? and pray all the fard prayers on that one wudu? plus the sunna prayers and be done with it? I don?t understand the hikma behind the ruling. Is it because of the aforementioned hadith or is there something else? Is there another more lenient ruling. What?s the maliki ruling by the way? I would be grateful if you could shed some light on the matter. Thank you.