Iblees

Aslaamu Alaikum wa Rahmat Allah wa BarakatoDear scholars,I have a couple of questions please and I hope I get the answers Insha-Allah. The first is in Sora Al-Kahf  18:50 says Iblees is from the Jin. Also in Sora Al-Aaraaf 7:11-12 also says he was from Jin (created from fire). So my question is, how did Iblees disobeyed Allah The Almighty when Allah commanded the ?Angels? to bow to Adam and not Iblees since he is a Jin? It?s not like the Christians where they say he is a fallen angel because the Quran Clearly states he was created from fire and angels are from light. Second question is, I am confused about the Islamic law for the Murtad (Apostasy). Why they are stoned to death? I mean is there a verse commands to do so, or the prophet did it? Didn?t Allah said in Sora Al-Bakara 2:256 ?La Ekraah Fel Deen? and also in Sora Al-Kaferoon 109:6 says ?Lakum Deenakum Wal Yadeen? and also Sora Al Kahf 18:29 says ?the Truth is from your Lord, anyone who wants to believe then let him believe, and anyone who doesn?t then also let him?? So I don?t understand the law against a Murtad. I once asked a sheikh (mulla) and he replied with an answer I didn?t like. He said what if a person from one military force go and joins an other country military force? He said they (the army) will kill him because he has secrets of the military. I respected the sheikh and didn?t say anything to him. But I told myself what are we hiding from other people? Is there something to hide? Then I asked another sheikh and he said he might bring harm to Islam so he should be put to death. I also respected him and went away without saying a thing. But in reality aren?t we bringing more harm to Islam by killing him? I mean what will other people (non Muslims) say if the see this act? In Sora Fusilat 41:33 says ?Who is better in speech than a person who makes Du-aa to Allah and do Righteousness and say he is among who is a Muslim?. So we should do righteousness. But like I said, if the prophet ordered us or the Quran ordered us to put ?death? to the murtad then of course I have no rejection.Third one is, what does ?what your right hand possess? really mean? I asked a sheikh and he told me slave girls that we can have sex with. I really don?t believe in that and certainly I know my religion don?t support slave girls. Although it is mentioned in the Bible in the old and new testament. Like in Deuteronomy 20:10-15, Exodus 21:20-21, 1 Peter 2:18 and so on. It can be found about what your right hand possess in Soora Al Nesaa 4:3-24-25-36 and Sora Al Nahhel 16:71 and Sora Al muumenoon 23 and finally in Soora Al Noor 24:31. And in Sora Al Noor it talks about what does ?women? right hands possess so I don?t think it?s slave or slave meant for sex. Because slavery is ONLY for Allah. We are Abd Allah (meaning slave of Allah). Also in Sora Aal-umran 3:64 says we should not take among ourselves Lords except Allah. And slave means someone is your Lord/Master/Controller. Or according to www.dictionary.com slave means ?a person who is the property of and wholly subject to another; a bond servant?. And also in Sora Yaa-Seen 26:61 Allah said to us (Banee Adam-Children of Adam) to only worship Him. Also in Sorat Huud 11:26 Allah say to only have him as our Lord and also in many many other verses. So can you please explain to me what does ?what my right hand possess??Third question is, how did Kuffr came into being? Adam and Eve taught their children about Allah without a doubt. Then their children also did the same, and so on. So the question is, how did not believing in Allah came in the first place?Forth, there are people who say that Allah is a pagan moon god for the old Arabs. I know this is 100% false but what is logical reason to argue. In sora 41:37 it clearly says not to worship the sun and the moon but worship Allah. I have used this argument but it isn?t effective against them. How can I convince them logically?Fifth, Allah said in Sora al-nisa 4:82 that there is not contradiction in the Quran and if there is, then it?s not from Allah. The following verses ?seems? opposed to each other but I know there should be an explanation for it. For example, in Sora albaqara 2:253 says we prefer some prophets over others and in 2:285 says we don?t prefer one prophet over another. Also in 6:34 and 15:9 and 18:27 and 6:115 and 10:64 says the word of God cannot be changed. But in 2:79 implies that the word of God can be changed. Furthermore, in 2:106 and 16:101 Allah himself says some verses are changed and deleted. Also 19:16-19 says only one angel spoke to Mary but in 3:42-45 says more than one. Also in 7:27 says Allah chooses the Shaitan to be with humans but in 7:30 says people make the Shaitan their ?Awle-yaA?. Also was Pharaon Drowen or saved? In 43:55 says he drowned and in 10:90-92 says he was saved by his body. Also will the Jews and Christains go to hell or heaven? In 3:85 says anyone who is not a muslim will go to hell and in 5:72-73 also says they will go to hell, but in 2:62 and 5:69 says they will go to heaven. Also in how many days Allah created the heavens and the earth? In 7:54, 10:3, and so on says six days. But in 41:9-12 says eight days. Finally, how was the Human created? In 25:54 and 24:45 says water. A clot in 96:1-2. A clay/mud in 15:26, 32:7, 38:71. From sand/dust in 30:20, and 35:11. There are more but I want to answer (explanation) to these if you please.I have few more but I will only ask this last question. This one IS THE most important one and I really really need an answer to it please. I want an honest answer please. The question is simple, has the Quran been tampered (changed, edited, played) with? For example, in Sora Al-Fateha 1 some scholars says that the besmellah al rahman al raheem is the first verse of the Sora and other don?t agree. I mean how did verses came to form in the first place? If when the revelation was revealed to Prophet Muhammad (peace be upon him) and at that time the Basmalah was a verse, then why are we changing this? Second, if you follow this link please (From your own site) http://www.islamonline.net/servlet/Satellite?pagename=IslamOnline-English-Ask_Scholar/FatwaE/FatwaE&cid=1119503545902 you will see that there are some verses (according to islamonline scholars) from the Quran were abrogated (meaning taken away from the original revelation). Like the verse (also according to your site) ?A married man and woman, if they commit adultery, stone them to death.?. I really am NOT understanding this. Is there any proof for this? Also in that very site you people also say there is a Wisdom in doing so. What are these wisdom? I really don?t know why Islamic people are doing this? Are they ashamed from the words of Allah The Almighty or there are verse they don?t want us (normal Muslims) to read? Also in that site you people say In another narration, `Umar added: ?By the One in Whose hands is my soul, had it not been that people would say: ?`Umar added to the Book of Allah, I would have reinserted it. It (the verse) read: ?A married man and woman, if they commit adultery, stone them to death. This is a punishment from Allah. Allah is Almighty and Wise.? Why did people remove the verse?!?! Is there a proof for the verse if it really exist? Why are they playing and tampering with Allah?s word (according to islamonline?or I misunderstood it?)? When did this happen? Is there not the original Quran to copy from in the first place? Yes there is, but why the removing and adding. I really don?t like the idea to go the way the people of the book (Jews and Christians) went. After I read the site I gave you I did a very small research and came up with these sites http://www.masjidtucson.org/quran/noframes/ch9fn.html http://www.al-islam.org/encyclopedia/chapter8/2.html http://rossdouthat.theatlantic.com/archives/2008/01/the_origins_of_the_quran.phpthese people argue that the Quran is either changed or not in it?s true order and some verses alike like Sora Al-Tawbah 9:33 and Sora Al-Sa-Fa 61:9 are exactly the same and also in sora al-safa 61:1 and sora al-hasher 59:1. I don?t know what they mean but is there explanation? The first link also says that the last two verses from Soora 9 (al tawbah) are false (128 and 129). They also say that the last two Sora are actually only Du-aaA and not really the word of God. Is this what the Shiates say? Because I am a Sunni. This all came on me at once and I don?t know how to react.Didn?t Allah said in his Holy Quran ??We have, without doubt, sent down the Message; and We will assuredly guard it (fro m corruption)?? (15:9 from Sora Al-Hijr). So Allah The Almighty is the God of the heavens of earth and everything in between them. He said he will guard the Quran himself and we all know God cannot be mistaken (he is perfect), but if anything did a mistake, anything/anyone, then he is not God. Am I true? Allah said in Sora Al Bakara 2:79 YUSUFALI: Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say:"This is from Allah," to traffic with it for miserable price!- Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make thereby. Please help me maintain this wonderful religion as of now I am thinking (thaa?an) it has been corrupted! I really wish Insha-Allah you will guide me to the truth behind this. I just want to clear my heart, the same as when Prophet Ibrahim (peace be upon him) said to Allah ?Kay Yaatma-eena Kalby? (Sora al-bakara 2:260) Thanks!Sorry for the LONG questions and Slaamu Alaikum wa Rahmat Allah wa BarakatuBader Alawadhi, Dubai, U.A.E